Guest Posted November 30, 2007 Share Posted November 30, 2007 I have been taking the 1mg Finasteride (Propecia) and have the option of cutting a 5mg Finasteride (Proscar) in half to total a 2.5mg dose at HUGE monthly savings. Is there anyone out there that might be doing the same thing? Have you seen any adverse side affects? My doctor says there will be none but I wanted to check it out first. Thanks... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member hoose Posted November 30, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted November 30, 2007 actually, you will save more by cutting it into 1/4's; this averages out to 1.25 mg, which is approximately the equivalent of 1 mg of Propecia; studies have shown that taking more than 1 mg/day is no more effective than 1 mg/day; so in summary, 2.5 mg/day will not be superior; save more money by cutting the Proscar into 1/4's--taking 1/4 per day. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member hairdude83 Posted December 5, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 5, 2007 proscar is same as propecia?? it is not worse than propecia? does the same effects n stuff? plz advise Propecia .5mg 1/2 tablet of hairscript formula Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member hoose Posted December 5, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 5, 2007 proscar and propecia both contain finasteride: one proscar tablet=5mg finasteride one propecia tab=1mg finsasteride Therefore by splitting the proscar into 1/4's you achieve approximately 1 mg of finasteride, the equivalent of taking propecia; note: it is difficult to split a proscar tab into 1/5's so people usually just split it into 1/4's Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iddie Posted December 6, 2007 Share Posted December 6, 2007 what about the sided effect of the proscar? would it be same as propecia? Coz it may not safe enough to be use as a daily drug... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member hoose Posted December 6, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 6, 2007 since they both have finasteride and you are spliting the proscar pill in 1/4's to get approx. 1mg of finasteride per/day the side effects will be identical; I myself have not experienced any side effects. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member Dr Proctor Posted December 12, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 12, 2007 Originally posted by SoCalMB:I have been taking the 1mg Finasteride (Propecia) and have the option of cutting a 5mg Finasteride (Proscar) in half to total a 2.5mg dose at HUGE monthly savings. Is there anyone out there that might be doing the same thing? Have you seen any adverse side affects? My doctor says there will be none but I wanted to check it out first. Thanks... Same drug, same side-effects. Naturally Merck would prefer to sell you Propecia at about the same cost per tablet. Thus, Proscar tablets are very small and irregularly-shaped to discourage quartering. However, the dose-response curve for finasteride is very flat--- a little works about as well as a lot. Combine this with the fact that finasteride forms an almost unbreakable bond with type-2 5-AR. I.e., though the blood half-life is only eight hours or so, synthesis of new enzyme is required to restore activity. This takes several days. This means the amount you take in any one day is almost irrelevant, within limits. So quarter the tablets as well as you can and don't worry. On general principles, I suggest skipping treatment every 5th day more or less, so that the averaged dose is 1 mg per day. Peter H Proctor, PhD,MD Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member Dr. Ricardo Mejia Posted December 15, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 15, 2007 Dr. Proctor. Perhaps you can help clarify an uncertaintly for me since you may be more knowledgeable on the manufaturing side of things. Can we assume in the manufacturing process that the drug is distributed equally in the tablet. I have heard from prior meetings that there is always the possibility when quartering tablets that you could get inconsistent dosages, for example we assume if we quarter a 5mg tablet that we get 1.25, 1.25, 1.25 1.25 mg. However, I have heard, you may get 3, 0,0 , 2 or 5, 0,0,0 etc etc. Is there any basis for this? The concern has been that you may not be getting the proper daily dosage to provide the necessary effect. I also recognize that this would be an advantage for Merck if we did believe the inconsistent dosage philosophy. I am also not aware if anyone has actually done a sample on quartering and measuring the actual concentrations. ANy thoughts on this? Ricardo Mejia MD Hair Transplant Network Physician Ricardo Mejia MD, FAAD Jupiter FL Hair Transplant Network recommended physician; photos Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member wylie Posted December 15, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 15, 2007 Originally posted by Dr Proctor: Same drug, same side-effects. Naturally Merck would prefer to sell you Propecia at about the same cost per tablet. Thus, Proscar tablets are very small and irregularly-shaped to discourage quartering. However, the dose-response curve for finasteride is very flat--- a little works about as well as a lot. Combine this with the fact that finasteride forms an almost unbreakable bond with type-2 5-AR. I.e., though the blood half-life is only eight hours or so, synthesis of new enzyme is required to restore activity. This takes several days. This means the amount you take in any one day is almost irrelevant, within limits. So quarter the tablets as well as you can and don't worry. On general principles, I suggest skipping treatment every 5th day more or less, so that the averaged dose is 1 mg per day. Peter H Proctor, PhD,MD Thanks for that, this puts any further questions I had about Finasteride on ice. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bill - Seemiller Posted December 16, 2007 Share Posted December 16, 2007 Dr. Mejia, I have heard the same thing as you have and it would be nice to have some "official" confirmation on this. From my understanding finasteride is NOT evenly distributed in the Proscar tablets. Taking 1/4 of a Proscar pill per day therefore will contain varying quantities of finasteride. From my understanding also, I have heard that finasteride may stay in the blood stream longer than 24 hours (which is what has built the premise of taking 1mg every other day) in which case a greater dosage one day would make up for a lesser dosage the next. As to a verification in these statements, I too would like to know. Bill Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member Dr Proctor Posted December 16, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 16, 2007 Originally posted by Dr. Mejia:Dr. Proctor. .... I have heard from prior meetings that there is always the possibility when quartering tablets that you could get inconsistent dosages, for example we assume if we quarter a 5mg tablet that we get 1.25, 1.25, 1.25 1.25 mg. However, I have heard, you may get 3, 0,0 , 2 or 5, 0,0,0 etc etc. Is there any basis for this? The concern has been that you may not be getting the proper daily dosage to provide the necessary effect. I also recognize that this would be an advantage for Merck if we did believe the inconsistent dosage philosophy. I am also not aware if anyone has actually done a sample on quartering and measuring the actual concentrations. ANy thoughts on this? Ricardo Mejia MD Hair Transplant Network Physician Probably not. First, other than in serial coatings, the technical problems inherent in reliably and reproducably distributing a drug inhomogeneously in a tablet are pretty significant. Why bother unless there is some specific reason? In any case, the flat dose-response curve for finasteride (a little works the same as a lot) combined with the strong binding of the drug to type-2 5-AR probably make the issue moot. Remember, while the blood half-life of finasteride is only a few hours, becasue binding is essentially irreversible, restoration of type-2 5 AR activity after inhibition requires synthesis of new enzyme, a matter of several days. Back in the days before finasteride became available as 1 mg Propecia, some physicians used to prescribe one Proscar tablet every three days or so. By report, this worked reasonably well.. So even it the drug is inhomogeneuoos (which I seriously doubt), it should make no significance difference, as a practical matter.. Peter H. Proctor, PhD,MD www.drproctor.com Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member Dr Proctor Posted December 16, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 16, 2007 Originally posted by Bill - Moderator:Dr. Mejia, I have heard the same thing as you have and it would be nice to have some "official" confirmation on this. From my understanding finasteride is NOT evenly distributed in the Proscar tablets. Taking 1/4 of a Proscar pill per day therefore will contain varying quantities of finasteride. From my understanding also, I have heard that finasteride may stay in the blood stream longer than 24 hours (which is what has built the premise of taking 1mg every other day) in which case a greater dosage one day would make up for a lesser dosage the next. As to a verification in these statements, I too would like to know. Bill As I explain elswhere, It is not an easy thing to reliably and reproducably distribute a drug in a tablet inhomogeneously. Likewise, because of the strong binding of finasteride to type-2 5-AR, it probably doesn't make much difference anyway. But if anybody is worried about this, just crush proscar tablets and take what looks to be about one-fifth tablet per day. The flat dose-response curve covers a lot of sins. As for the persistence of Finasteride-- IIRC, the blood half-life is about 8 hours or so. Considering the flat dose-response curve ( a little works about as well as a lot), you get pharmacologically active amounts in blood for a day or so. However, blood levels are really secondary-- finasteride binds in an essentially non-equilibrium manner to type-2 5-alpha-reductase, strongly and non-diffusibly. That is, once it binds it sticks. Thus, as a practical matter restoration of activity likely strongly depends upon synthesis of new enzyme, a matter of several days. Peter H. Proctor, PhD,MD Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member hoose Posted December 17, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 17, 2007 from what i understand finasteride is evenly distributed in a proscar tablet; in the manufacturing process the active ingrediant (finasteride) is mixed with the fillers and binders before the actual pills are "pressed." If the active ingrediant is not evenly distributed, then in theory, a random proscar tablet could have 0 mg of finasteride in it; about 2 years ago I did a google on "active ingrediants being evenly distributed in a pill" and the information I seen seemed to confirm this; also i work in manufacturing, and this engineer I knew worked in a pharmaceutical plant and explained the process and told me that as a general rule the active ingrediant in a tablet is evenly distributed; so I think this can be extrapolated to proscar Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member diego Posted December 19, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 19, 2007 You know I have been thinking for sometime now if I should use propecia or proscar but to be honest I'm affraid to use them. I know you have certain results but I understood that you have might experience a low sexual drive or something similar. That is an area that I don't wanna mess with I'm really confused... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member Dr Proctor Posted December 21, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 21, 2007 Yes, fiansteride (propecia) does have some side-effects. The most distressing of these is arguably decreased libido or sex drive. But the incidence of this in males under 40 years old is less that 5%. How much less is open to debate, but in any case low. Matters are different over age 50, where the incidenc of sclinically-significant sexual dysfunctions is 25% or so. But the drug is not generally recommended for people past their early 40's anyway. In any case, these problems seem to reverse within a few weeks of stopping treatment. I have heard anecdotal stories of a few persons in whom libido dicrease, etc. did not reverse. But htis seems to be rare, if it exists at all. Peter H. Proctor, PhD,MD Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member wylie Posted December 22, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 22, 2007 Dr. Proctor, is there any side effects to taking 1 mg of finasteride in your 40's and 50's besides greater incidence of sexual side effects? I perhaps have lost all I'm going to lose as far as hair goes, but prefer to take finasteride in the event I still have more to lose and since it is so inexpensive it is one prescription I can afford to take as long as I have health insurance, it costs me $15.00 a year Thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member diamondlight Posted December 28, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 28, 2007 As far as Proscar goes! Is the generic version (besides the shape of the pill) any different at all from the brand name? I would think not since I wouldnt be able to be sold but...it caught me off guard when I filled out my prescription. I dont want to bother my doctor because I probably already know the answer but...anyone? My log: http://www.hairrestorationnetwork.com/eve/170133-dr-true-2k-graft-29yr-old-male.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member notgoing2gobald Posted December 28, 2007 Senior Member Share Posted December 28, 2007 Dr. Proctor, ..."the incidence of this in males under 40 years old is less than 5%"... I did not know that. That is fantastic news! Thank you for that. I wish I had know that before. Does this same age to % ratio hold true for erectile dysfunction as well? Regarding the anecdotal stories where libido decrease did not reverse, have you heard the same with respect to erectile dysfunction? Thank you that was a GREAT statistic which encourages me to try it out. Also, if propecia is not generally recommended for people past their early 40's, then people who have had ht can not just continue use indefinitely. Don't they run the risk of losing a significant amount of hair in their crown when they hit their 40's then? I was always under the impression that if you have a ht the doctor recommends you stay on propecia indefinitely. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member Dr Proctor Posted December 28, 2007 Regular Member Share Posted December 28, 2007 Originally posted by notgoing2gobald:Dr. Proctor, ..."the incidence of this in males under 40 years old is less than 5%"... "....Does this same age to % ratio hold true for erectile dysfunction as well? Dr Proctor sez: Probably. IIRC, the incidence of sexyal dysfuynction in patients over 55 on finasteride ais about 25% or so. "..Regarding the anecdotal stories where libido decrease did not reverse, have you heard the same with respect to erectile dysfunction?.." Dr Proctor sez: Yes, but. It is unclear whether this lack of reversal was real, conincidental, or merely unverified rumor... I suspect a bit of each. " Also, if propecia is not generally recommended for people past their early 40's, then people who have had ht can not just continue use indefinitely. Don't they run the risk of losing a significant amount of hair in their crown when they hit their 40's then? I was always under the impression that if you have a ht the doctor recommends you stay on propecia indefinitely. Dr Proctor sez: Good questions. Nobody knows the answers. I will prescribe finasteride up to age 50 or so, after advising the patients accordingly, naturally. Over 40 is a "relative contraindication", mostly because the oldest person in the trial was 41. This seems appropriate most of the time because of the general reversibility of any sexual problems. Over 50, I start to worry. One reason is the significantly increased incidence of sexual dysfunction. The other is that, while finasteride early may retard the development of prostate cancer, it may promote the progression of the last precancerous stage to frank prostate cancer. As a practical matter, this is probably not an issue under age 50, if it is an issue at all. Peter H. Proctor, PhD,MD Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeremyyoung101 Posted January 27, 2013 Share Posted January 27, 2013 Same drug, same side-effects. Naturally Merck would prefer to sell you Propecia at about the same cost per tablet. Thus, Proscar tablets are very small and irregularly-shaped to discourage quartering. However, the dose-response curve for finasteride is very flat--- a little works about as well as a lot. Combine this with the fact that finasteride forms an almost unbreakable bond with type-2 5-AR. I.e., though the blood half-life is only eight hours or so, synthesis of new enzyme is required to restore activity. This takes several days. This means the amount you take in any one day is almost irrelevant, within limits. So quarter the tablets as well as you can and don't worry. On general principles, I suggest skipping treatment every 5th day more or less, so that the averaged dose is 1 mg per day. Peter H Proctor, PhD,MD Was curious if lifting weights causes propecia to lose its effectiveness since your body is generating more Testosterone that will and can be converted to dht? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
teebon Posted July 8, 2013 Share Posted July 8, 2013 (edited) I think 5mg proscar does a better job. If you're worried about cost this is where I buy it for a cheap price without a prescription http://trustedtabsrx.com/ and I know it works good. Edited July 17, 2013 by teebon Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Regular Member savemyhairplease Posted May 29, 2015 Regular Member Share Posted May 29, 2015 (edited) Was curious if lifting weights causes propecia to lose its effectiveness since your body is generating more Testosterone that will and can be converted to dht? Would also be curious to know more about this. Has anyone tried this http://www.hairgrowthcure.com ? Edited June 6, 2015 by savemyhairplease Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nleyjocelin Posted August 20, 2020 Share Posted August 20, 2020 A difference is that Propecia is prescribed as a 1 mg tablet indicated for the treatment of male pattern hair loss (androgenetic alopecia) in men only, while Proscar is prescribed as a 5 mg tablet used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in men with an enlarged prostate. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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