Regular Member cc89 Posted March 5, 2011 Regular Member Share Posted March 5, 2011 (edited) I know it's possible, but how and why does it happen? I'm sure I've mentioned my father's case once or twice on these forums. He began showing signs in his mid thirties, and is now in his late fifties and stable at NW3-Vertex. Pretty common, but the weird thing is that he's the only balding person in our family right up to both my maternal and paternal great grandfathers. Anyone else heard of similar cases before? Edited March 5, 2011 by cc89 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dr. Glenn Charles Posted March 7, 2011 Share Posted March 7, 2011 Have several patients over the years in similar situation. Usually if the person had the ability to tract family roots farther back they would find the answer. I believe that Androgenetic Alopecia can skip generations. Dr. Glenn Charles is a member of the Coalition of Independent Hair Restoration Physicians Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Senior Member gillenator Posted March 7, 2011 Senior Member Share Posted March 7, 2011 It is sort of along the same dilemma as to MPB in family history but not hitting all of the men. For example my two brothers and I are all within several years of age from one anothe yet I am the only one who is affected by MPB. My two brothers have no hairloss nor does my sister. Gillenator Independent Patient Advocate I am not a physician and not employed by any doctor/clinic. My opinions are not medical advice, but are my own views which you read at your own risk. Supporting Physicians: Dr. Robert Dorin: The Hairloss Doctors in New York, NY Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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