Interesting Question About Hair Growth Process and Health of Strands

[joeyjoey]

My question regards the generic notion that hair is "dead". To me, this notion implies that once the hair has grown away from the scalp the condition or health of that portion of the strand is "permanent". Is this true? Or are even the distal portions of hairs still receiving "nutrients" from the follicle that affect their condition?

 

I ask because I am puzzled about something I have observed with my own hair. About two months ago I quit using Propecia. Since that time, some of the hairs at the front of my scalp have become completely unruly, thin, and curly. This is exactly what I observed about 7-8 years ago when I first noticed my hair loss and began using Propecia/minoxidil. I also know beyond any doubt that my hairs were not like this before I quit Propecia because I took careful note of my hair at the time I quit, and had also specifically noticed in recent years how Propecia had "cured" such hairs from my scalp.

 

So here's the puzzling part. Some of the affected hairs are 4-5 inches long, and the FULL length of the hairs is affected, right to the very end. My hairs do not grow 5 inches in 2 months, so I'm completely confused as to how the distal portion of the hairs are affected. The only explanation I can reason is that the health of the distal portion of a hair is still influenced by conditions at the follicle??? Also, this apparent frizziness is very noticeable, and not just in my head (ha ha). I even received an unfortunate comment from a peer who noticed but just thought there was something weird going on that day.

 

I'm a logical, scientific person, and would probably never believe this interpretation and observation of hair conditions had it come from someone else (assuming hair is "dead" and unchanging once it has grown away from scalp). But since it's happened to me and I've observed it I am instead just confused and trying to make sense of it. The only other vague possibility I can imagine is that prior to stopping Propecia there were a bunch of nearby straight hairs that disguised the presence of these thin, curly hairs, and for some reason it was the straight ones that shed... but that's stretching it and I'm not sure this really appears to be true anyway.

 

Sorry for dragging on, but does anyone have a factual answer to this question? I'm baffled.

 

 

 

For what it's worth, I also started using Rogaine foam about a month after I stopped Propecia. So I've been on that 3-4 weeks. I used 2% minoxidil once a day before that, and along with the Propecia (couldn't use more due to irritation).

[joeyjoey]

My question regards the generic notion that hair is "dead". To me, this notion implies that once the hair has grown away from the scalp the condition or health of that portion of the strand is "permanent". Is this true? Or are even the distal portions of hairs still receiving "nutrients" from the follicle that affect their condition?

 

I ask because I am puzzled about something I have observed with my own hair. About two months ago I quit using Propecia. Since that time, some of the hairs at the front of my scalp have become completely unruly, thin, and curly. This is exactly what I observed about 7-8 years ago when I first noticed my hair loss and began using Propecia/minoxidil. I also know beyond any doubt that my hairs were not like this before I quit Propecia because I took careful note of my hair at the time I quit, and had also specifically noticed in recent years how Propecia had "cured" such hairs from my scalp.

 

So here's the puzzling part. Some of the affected hairs are 4-5 inches long, and the FULL length of the hairs is affected, right to the very end. My hairs do not grow 5 inches in 2 months, so I'm completely confused as to how the distal portion of the hairs are affected. The only explanation I can reason is that the health of the distal portion of a hair is still influenced by conditions at the follicle??? Also, this apparent frizziness is very noticeable, and not just in my head (ha ha). I even received an unfortunate comment from a peer who noticed but just thought there was something weird going on that day.

 

I'm a logical, scientific person, and would probably never believe this interpretation and observation of hair conditions had it come from someone else (assuming hair is "dead" and unchanging once it has grown away from scalp). But since it's happened to me and I've observed it I am instead just confused and trying to make sense of it. The only other vague possibility I can imagine is that prior to stopping Propecia there were a bunch of nearby straight hairs that disguised the presence of these thin, curly hairs, and for some reason it was the straight ones that shed... but that's stretching it and I'm not sure this really appears to be true anyway.

 

Sorry for dragging on, but does anyone have a factual answer to this question? I'm baffled.

 

 

 

For what it's worth, I also started using Rogaine foam about a month after I stopped Propecia. So I've been on that 3-4 weeks. I used 2% minoxidil once a day before that, and along with the Propecia (couldn't use more due to irritation).